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Killtest Shares Microsoft MCSD: App Builder 70-489 Free Exam Questions For Checking:

You need to search for research papers that contain media files.
What should you do? {Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Add an Association operation from the ResearchPapers.ID field to the Windows Media Service.
B. Use Remote BLOB storage.
C. Add an Association operation from the ResearchPapers.ID field to the TreyResearch external content type.
D. Create a SQL Server-based external content type.
Answer: B, D

You need to configure the Content Enrichment web service to index content from the AbstractIndexer service.
What should you do?
A. Set the value of the OutputProperties array to Trigger=True.
B. Set the value of the SendRawData property to false.
C. Configure conditions for the Trigger property.
D. Set the value of the InputProperties property to Trigger=True.
Answer: A

You create a custom Visual Web Part. You deploy the solution package to the farm
by using Windows PowerShell. When you try to add the custom Visual Web Part to a
SharePoint site, an error message displays that includes a correlation ID.
You need to determine the cause of the error.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Run the Get-SPLogEvent Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
B. Run the Get-SPDiagnosticConfig Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
C. Run the Get-SPHealthAnalysisRule Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
D. View the Service Calls tab on the Developer Dashboard.
E. View the Unified Logging Service (ULS) tab on the Developer Dashboard.
Answer: A, E

You need to implement caching in your code.
Which caching option should you use?
A. Object Cache
B. Distributed Cache
C. Windows Server AppFabric Cache
D. ASP.NET cache
Answer: C

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[June 3, 2018]Lpi LPIC-3 300-100 Test Questions

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[June 1, 2018]Lpi LPIC-3 300-100 Test Questions

Which of the following parameters is used in the database on a slave server to direct clients that want to make changes to the OpenLDAP database to the master server?
A. updatedn
B. updateserver
C. updateref
D. updateuri
Answer: C

It is found that changes made to an OpenLDAP directory are no longer being replicated to the slave server at 192.168.0.3. Tests prove that the slave server is listening on the correct port and changes are being recorded properly to the replication log file. In which file would you find the replication errors?
A. replication.err
B. replication.rej
C. 192.168.0.3: 389.rej
D. 192.168.0.3: 389.err
Answer: C

In an OpenLDAP masters’s slapd.conf configuration file, a replica configuration option is needed to enable a slave OpenLDAP server to replicate. What value is required in the following setting: bindmethod=____________ if using passwords for master/slave authentication? (Only specify the missing value)
Answer: simple

In the example below, what is the missing argument that is required to use secret as the password to authenticate the replication push with a slave directory server?
replica uri=ldaps: //slave.example.com: 636
binddn=”cn=Replicator,dc=example,dc=com”
bindmethod=simple ______________=secret
A. secure
B. master
C. credentials
D. password
Answer: C

Below is an ACL entry from a slapd.conf file. Fill in the access control level setting to prevent users from retrieving passwords.
access to attrs=lmPassword,ntPassword by dn=”cn=smbadmin,dc=samplenet” write by * _______
Answer: none

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[2018] IBM C2090-623 Real Exam Questions | Killtest

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[2018] IBM C2090-623 Real Exam Questions | Killtest

An administrator needs to setup security for a newly installed environment.
Which of the following is a valid step?
A. Remove the default authentication provider.
B. Enable anonymous access for selected users, groups, or roles.
C. Delete the Everyone group to limit access to the environment for selected users, groups, and roles.
D. Add trusted users, groups, or roles to the System Administrators role, and then remove the Everyone group from the role.
Answer: D

In a multi-server environment, an administrator wants to ensure that items in the Content Manager Cache service are re-validated every thirty seconds.
Which option would accomplish this?
A. Set the memory limit of the Content Manager Cache service to 30000.
B. Set the DISP.contentManagerCacheService.accountlnactivityTimer property to 30000.
C. Set the DISP.contentManagerCacheService.cacheValidatorTimetoLive property to 30000.
D. Set the DISP.contentManagerCacheService.cacheValidatorTimetoLinger property to 30000.
Answer: C

An administrator is configuring settings for the Cognos Analytics Mobile app.
Which settings can be managed?
A. To store the user credentials in the IBM Cognos Mobile app.
B. The maximum number of minutes to store cached credentials.
C. Allow the user to create an image (screenshot) of the Active Report.
D. The maximum number of Active Reports to store locally on the mobile device.
Answer: B

An administrator is evaluating system status using the Scorecard pane on the Status > System page in the IBM Cognos Administration console.
Which statement is true?
A. If a service is disabled in IBM Cognos Configuration, it is listed in the Scorecard pane.
B. The status that is displayed for each entry reflects the lowest status for all child entries.
C. A status of Available is displayed when at least 80% of the child entries have a status of Available.
D. A status of Unavailable is displayed when at least 80% of the child entries have a status of Unavailable.
Answer: B

An administrator is implementing security by managing and working with the Cognos namespace.
Which statement is true?
A. To gain access to IBM Cognos Analytics, users can log on to the Cognos namespace.
B. Create domain users in the Cognos namespace to avoid cluttering the existing authentication provider.
C. User-defined groups and roles must be created in a 3rd-party authentication provider and cannot be created in the Cognos namespace.
D. Although the use of the predefined and built-in groups and roles within the Cognos namespace is optional, the Cognos namespace cannot be deleted.
Answer: D

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Because SmartDedupe and SmartCompression can reduce the total required storage spacer,
they can also reduce the initial investment.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

Which protocol provides the fastest transfer speed?
A. 10 GE iSCSI
B. FC0E
C. FC
D. Infiniband
Answer: D

From a Windows client perspective, a NAS looks more like a network drive whereas a
SAN looks more like a local drive.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

Which of the following statements is true.
A) An eDevLUN is always on a third party device?
B) A mirror copy should come from a different domain than the local LUN?
A. Statement A is true and Statement B is false.
B. Statement A is false and Statement B is true.
C. Both statements are true.
D. Both statements are false.
Answer: B

SmartDedupe of the OceanStor 5300 V3 is supported only by the thin file system.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

Which of the following statements about SmartErase is/are true.
A) SmartErase allows a disk whose data has been erased to be reused after a
dab destruction task is completed?
B) SmartErase deletes data, that belongs to a specific LUN, permanently from
disks to prevent it from being recovered by unauthorized users using residual data?
A. Statement A is true and Statement B is false.
B. Statement A is false and Statement B is true.
C. Both statements are true.
D. Both statements are false.
Answer: B

Assume you are the administrator of a storage system and you need to plan storage capacity.
The storage device has six disks, and the dab traffic is random and small.
Which of the following is the best capacity plan?
A. RAID 3 (4D+1P) and Low spare space policy.
B. RAID 5 (4D+1P) and Low spare space policy,
C. RAID 3 (3D+1P) and High spare space policy.
D. RAID 5 (3D+1P) and High spare space policy.
Answer: B

A colleague suggests using Hyper Clone to create a remote copy of a LUN to provide
a remote office with the correct data.
This is?
A. Not possible because clones are created within the boundaries of a storage device.
B. Possible but will require a very high bandwidth link.
C. Possible but an expensive solution.
D. Not possible because clones do not provide copies of LUN’s,
Answer: A

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Storage Technical V1 C9020-668 Study Guide (Q11-Q20)

Storage Technical V1 C9020-668 Study Guide: 

11.A security policy for a customer specifies a need for similar methods to manage encryption keys for dish and tape storage. A recent proposal includes the IBM TS4500 and IBM Storwize V5030.
What should the technical specialist highlight?
A. IBM Spectrum Protect will provide encryption keys for both products
B. The same USB key can contain the encryption keys for both products.
C. IBM Security Key Lifecycle Manager will manage keys for both products.
D. IBM Spectrum Control will manage encryption for both products.
Answer:C

12.A customer wants to improve storage efficiency within a data center. The customer requires a low latency storage system that has a highly parallel architecture and comprehensive data reduction with pattern removal.
Which system should the technical specialist propose?
A. IBM FlashSystem V9000
B. IBM DS8886 HPFE
C. IBM FlashSystem A9000R
D. IBM XIV with compression
Answer: C

13.Which IBM XIV replication feature provides the ability for a remote target volume to be initialized without requiring the contents of the source volume to be re-replicated over an inter-site link?
A. Asynchronous Replication
B. Quick Initialization
C. Offline Initialization
D. Synchronous Replication
Answer: C

14.A customer has released a RFP for a cloud solution to monitor and analyze storage usage on IBM Spectrum Virtualize and EMC disk. The proposed solution will replace on-site monitoring software.
Which product should the technical specialist recommend?
A. IBM Spectrum Scale
B. IBM Electronic Service Agent
C. IBM Spectrum Control Storage Insights
D. IBM Storage Alert Manager
Answer: C

15. A customer’s compliance department requires that data is kept for ten years. The data must be available as needed, and the customer must ensure that the data
cannot be modified.
Which technology should the specialist recommend?
A. NVMe flash
B. SED drives
C. NL-SAS drives
D. WORM tape cartridges
Answer: D

16.A customer has existing SAP HANA production nodes connected to an IBM Elastic Storage Server (ESS). The customer needs to scale out additional ESS nodes to maintain the high I/O throughput requirement
Which type of nodes should be proposed?
A. Protocol nodes with SAS drives
B. Storage nodes with SSD drives
C. Storage nodes with SAS drives
D. Protocol nodes with SSD drives
Answer: B

17.A customer has a fully licensed single frame IBM TS4500 with four 3592 drives installed, using about 200 storage slots, and a small IBM TS3310 library with two LTO-6 drives and 60 LTO-6 cartridges The customer wants to consolidate the two libraries and move the LTO cartridges into the IBM TS4500.
Which upgrade to the IBM TS4500 achieves this goal?
A. Use the existing frame, and add two new LTO-6 drives.
B. Upgrade the LTO-6 drive models and move them into the existing frame,
C. Move the two LTO-6 drives into a new IBM TS4500 drive frame.
D. Add a new drive frame, with two new LTO-7 drives.
Answer: A

18.A customer issued an RFP to replace EMC Disks, Vendors are being asked to provide the best competitive advantage in their proposals.
What should the IBM proposal on an IBM FlashSystem A9000 include in the bid?
A. Flash cache
B. All software features included in base price
C. HyperSwap migration
D. Fully-automated software tiering
Answer: A

19. A customer with a block storage from a competitor desires an OpenStack ready platform for storage management.
Which solution should the technical specialist recommend?
A. IBM Spectrum Control
B. IBM Spectrum Scale
C. IBM Spectrum protect Suite
D. IBM PowerVM NovaLink
Answer: B

20.An IBM mainframe client has IBM DS8886 CKD storage installed, The customer has decided to add another new IBM DS8886 and use IBM Metro Mirror to provide a synchronous redundant copy of the data.
Which additional IBM software enables non-disruptive failover in the event of a storage hardware failure?
A. IBM Global Mirror
B. IBM HyperSwap
C. IBM High Performance FICON
D. IBM Remote Pair FlashCopy
Answer: B

C9020-668 Study Guide(Q1-Q10): http://www.c4040-122.com/storage-technical-v1-c9020-668-study-guide-q1-q10/

[2018]Lpi LPIC-3 304-200 Free Questions(Q1-Q20)

[2018]Lpi LPIC-3 304-200 Free Questions:

1.CORRECT TEXT.
When using direct Linux booting to start Linux within a KVM virtual machine, which KVM parameter is used to specify parameters for the Linux Kernel? (Specify ONLY the option name without any values or parameters.)
A.append, -append
Answer: A

2.CORRECT TEXT.
Which command in the KVM monitor restores a snapshot? (Specify ONLY the command without any path or parameters.)
A.loadvm
Answer: A

3 CORRECT TEXT.
Which sub-command of xl lists the block devices that are currently attached to a Xen guest domain? (Specify ONLY the sub-command without any path or parameters.)
A.block-list, xl block-list
Answer: A

4.What is libvirt?
A. An identity manager used to provide Single-Sign-On for different operating systems.
B. A driver package used to support 3D printers.
C. A cluster manager used to handle node access to shared storage.
D. A combined interface to several virtualization products.
E. A Linux-based virtualization hypervisor.
Answer: D

5.Which of the following products use container-based virtualization? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. KVM
B. Linux VServer
C. LXC
D. OpenVZ
E. Xen
Answer: B,C,D

6.What is the usual way to gain command line access to computing instances in an IaaS cloud?
A. By providing a public SSH key to the cloud management system and using the matching private SSH key to log into the instances.
B. Usually computing instances are accessed through a web frontend and do not allow command line access.
C. By either telnet or SSH using the credentials of the cloud management system account with administrative privileges.
D. By using a telnet session with the credentials set and publicized by the creator of the computing instance’s system image.
E. By using a VNC console which does not require authentication when it is invoked via the cloud management system.
Answer: A

7.Which of the following commands boots a KVM virtual machine using Debian GNU/Linux?
A. qemu -create -drive file=debian.img -cdrom debian.iso -m 1024 -boot d
B. qemu-kvm -drive file=debian.img -cdrom debian.iso -m 1024 -boot d
C. kvm -create -drive file=debian.img -cdrom debian.iso -m 1024 -boot d
D. kvm -qemu -drive file=debian.img -cdrom debian.iso -m 1024 -boot d
Answer: B

8.Which one of the following tools can NOT be used to create virtual machines, including their configuration in a libvirt-based KVM environment?
A. virt-clone
B. virt-install
C. virt-img
D. virt-manager
Answer: C

9.Which of the following KVM monitor commands changes the image file in the first IDE CDROM drive of a virtual machine?
A. change ide1-cd0 /tmp/linux.iso
B. update ide1-cd0 /tmp/linux.iso
C. set ide1-cd0=/tmp/linux.iso
D. eject –reconnect ide1-cd0 /tmp/linux.iso
E. disc file=/tmp/linux.iso,device=/dev/sr0
Answer: A

10.Which of the following statements are true regarding hardware based virtualization? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. Hardware based virtualization requires special support in the host system’s hardware which is present in all recent x86-based computers.
B. Hardware based virtualization implements a whole machine in software and therefore can run virtual machines of a given hardware platform on an arbitrary host system.
C. Hardware based virtualization relies on the host system’s processor to call the hypervisor when critical instructions are executed by a virtual machine.
D. Hardware based virtualization is not available on x86-based CPU architectures and requires special virtualization host hardware.
Answer: A,C

11.Which statement is true regarding the Linux kernel module that must be loaded in order to use KVM?
A. It must be loaded into the kernel of each virtual machine to provide paravirtualization which is required by KVM.
B. It must be loaded into the kernel of the host system in order to use the virtualization extensions of the host system’s CPU.
C. It must be loaded into the kernel of the host system only if the console of a virtual machine will be connected to a physical console of the host system.
D. It must be loaded into the kernel of each virtual machine that will access files and directories from the host system’s file system.
E. It must be loaded into the kernel of the first virtual machine as it interacts with the KVM bare metal hypervisor and is required to trigger the start of additional virtual machines.
Answer: B

12.After the Xen guest configuration file debian.cfg has been created and successfully tested, which additional action must be performed in order to make this Xen guest start automatically every time the host system boots?
A. It is necessary to add xendomains_auto = yes to the virtual machine configuration file.
B. It is necessary to add an entry for debian.cfg to the file /etc/xen/guesttab.
C. It is necessary to run the command xl autostart debian.cfg.
D. It is necessary to add a symbolic link to the configuration file in the /etc/xen/auto/ directory.
E. It is not possible to use Xen and its tools to start virtual machines automatically.
Answer: D

13.What action does the virsh restore command perform?
A. It restores a virtual machine that was stopped by a kernel panic.
B. It restores a virtual machine from a state file.
C. It reverts a virtual machine, including its storage devices, to a previously saved state.
D. It wakes up a virtual machine that was hibernated by the operating system running inside the virtual machine.
Answer: B

14.Which of the following statements are true regarding IaaS computing instances? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. Creation of new instances can be automated by using scripts or APIs and service interfaces.
B. The root file system of a computing instance is always persistent and can be accessed after the instance is destroyed.
C. Each and every user of an IaaS cloud has exactly one computing instance.
D. Once created, computing instances are seldom deleted in order to ensure the accessibility of the instance’s data.
E. Instances may be created when needed and destroyed when they become obsolete.
Answer: A,E

15.Which of the following statements are true regarding emulation? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. Emulation can only provide distinct hardware components but no complete virtual machines.
B. Emulation requires changes to the guest operating system.
C. Emulation reimplements a whole computing system in software.
D. Emulation allows operating systems to be run on foreign architectures.
E. Emulation is one of the most resource efficient virtualization techniques.
Answer: C,D

16.Which of the following data should be copied to the virtual machine when migrating a physical machine to a virtual machine?
A. The block device buffers
B. The CPU flags
C. The file systems or their content
D. The CPU register’s content
E. The memory
Answer: C

17.Which of the following commands can be used to determine whether the local machine is capable of running full virtualized Xen guests? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. dmesg |grep -i intel|grep -i vt; dmesg |grep -i amd|grep -i v
B. egrep ‘(vmx|svm)’ /proc/cpuinfo
C. xl dmesg | grep -i hvm
D. grep -i “Full Virtualization” /proc/xen
E. grep -i “Full Virtualization” /etc/xen/*
Answer: B,C

18.CORRECT TEXT.
What is the name of the kernel module that is required to be loaded in order to use KVM on an Intel CPU architecture? (Specify ONLY the module name without any path information and with or without the module suffix.)
A.kvm-intel.ko, kvm-intel, kvm_intel.ko, kvm_intel
Answer: A

19.CORRECT TEXT.
Which virsh subcommand is used to change the CD-ROM image file attached to a virtual machine? (Specify ONLY the subcommand without any parameters.)
A.change-media, virsh change-media, qemu-monitor-command, virsh qemu-monitor-command
Answer: A

20.Which of the following commands lists the snapshots existing in the disk image vm1.img?
A. qemu-info snapshots vm1.img
B. qemu-img snapshot -l vm1.img
C. qemu -hda snapshot -l vm1.img -noboot -list snapshots
D. qemu-snapshots -l vm1.img
E. qemu-monitor -snapshots -hda vm1.img
Answer: B

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New Workloads Sales V1 C9020-667 Exam Questions

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New Workloads Sales V1 C9020-667 Exam Questions

Which characteristic of a customer’s server defines the storage device that could be attached?
A. Form factor
B. Clock speed
C. Memory size
D. Operating system
Answer: D

Which type of tape should an IBM sales specialist recommend to an enterprise customer?
A. 3480
B. DLT
C. LTO
D. SLC
Answer: C

What simplifies customer training requirements for storage management across multiple IBM enterprise offerings?
A. Redbooks
B. Storage GUIs
C. DS Storage Manager
D. Directed Maintenance Package
Answer: B

Which product will allow a customer to aggregate, monitor, and recommend optimization for existing storage?
A. SVC
B. ESS
C. IBM Spectrum Control
D. IBM Spectrum Virtualize
Answer: C

What is a customer with storage management constraints likely to inquire about?
A. IBM Spectrum Control
B. IBM Spectrum Protect
C. IBM Spectrum Archive
D. IBM Spectrum Accelerate
Answer: A

Compared to other enterprise storage systems, which product has made the most changes to be energy efficient?
A. V7000 with Unified
B. XIV with 16Gb FICON
C. V7000 with block only
D. DS8870 with DC-UPS
Answer: D

Which key metric drives a customer’s disaster recovery strategy?
A. ROI
B. RTO
C. TCA
D. TCO
Answer: B

A mainframe customer wants to store petabytes of encrypted backups. The customer does not want to use physical tape any longer but does not wish to change any backup processes.
Which solution should the sales person propose to the customer?
A. TS7740
B. DS8000
C. ProtecTIER
D. XIV Hot Encryption
Answer: A

Which IBM product is applicable to a customer that has block storage sites in China, Japan, and Singapore, and needs to have them kept in sync for disaster recovery?
A. XIV
B. ESS
C. DS8000
D. IBM Spectrum Virtualize
Answer: C

A bank customer has two sites in Italy and France. One site uses IBM storage and the other uses a competitor.
Which IBM solution is required for block storage when unifying the sites for disaster recovery?
A. XIV
B. ESS
C. DS8000
D. IBM Spectrum Control
Answer: D

Which concern should a sales specialist raise with a customer requesting 4TB drives to support an SAP environment?
A. Higher maintenance costs
B. More capacity than needed
C. Higher power requirements
D. Less performance than needed
Answer: D

Which tool should a sales specialist use to verify that a proposed XIV solution will deliver the performance required by a customer’s high transactional database applications?
A. STAT Tool
B. Disk Magic
C. Batch Magic
D. Capacity Magic
Answer: B

How will the IBM FlashSystem help improve the performance for the customer’s database application?
A. It will improve latency.
B. It will improve replication.
C. It will improve throughput.
D. It will improve deduplication.
Answer: A

When considering a high availability solution to replicate data between locations, which information is most important to know?
A. Peak reads
B. Peak writes
C. Average reads
D. Average writes
Answer: B

Which IBM solution will provide 400 TB of NFS storage?
A. XIV
B. DS8870
C. Storwize V7000
D. IBM Spectrum Scale
Answer: D

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Customers need a 4-core S814 server, which requires 1TB available disk space run the ERP applications. Customers hope to achieve the lowest TCA, at the same time to minimize rack space.
Which disk storage technology meet these requirements?
A. SAN
B. Flash
C. Internal hard disk
D. Internal solid-state disk
Answer: A

A potential IBM POWER8 customer is worried about the life of RISC processor. Which of the following response should help the customers do not have to worry too much about investment in Power System’s?
A. Because IBM support Little Endian, AIX and IBM i will be able to run on x86.
B. IBM operating system and Power Technology Roadmap emphasizes the IBM technology promises.
C. Even if POWER stop production, all IBM applications and middleware have been ported to Linux.
D. IBM assure OpenPOWER foundation that IBM will continue to develop POWER chips in the next 10 years.
Answer: B

Which P0WER8 technology features contribute the most to lower TCO?
A.CAPI and transactional memory
B.High performance cores and SMT
C.PCIe Gen3 support and Hot Plug adapters
D.First Failure Data Capture and Thermal Power Management Device
Answer: B

A customer is migrating from a POWER6 570 to a POWER8 S824. Which technology will have to be replaced?
A. FCoE
B. SAS
C. Fibre Channel
D. SCSI
Answer: D

A customer is running a large application on x86 Linux with an Oracle Enterprise database. Which of the following can be used to financially justify migrating the application to POWER8 and DB2?
A. POWER8 requires fewer cores to run the same workload.
B. POWER8 Active Memory Expansion reduces the cost of memory.
C. POWER8 cores exploit SMT6.
D. POWER8 hardware and software maintenance costs are lower.
Answer: A

Which P0WER8 RAS feature is available on all Scale-out and Enterprise systems?
A. Dual System Clocks
B. Hot Plug PCIe adapters
C. CoD cores
D. DualFSPs
Answer: B

What PCI adapter does POWER8 support?
A. only PCIe Gen 3
B. PCI-X and PCIe Gen 3
C. PCIe Gen 1, PCIe Gen 2 and PCIe Gen 3
D. PCI-X, PCIe Gen 1, PCIe Gen 2 and PCIe Gen 3
Answer: C

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Share Valid Questions Of IBM Certified Technical Sales Specialist C9010-262 Exam Questions Killtest Below:

A customer has older generations of Power servers that they want to manage with their E870 server from the same 7042-CR8 HMC running V8R8.2.0.
What is the earliest Power server generation that is supported with this HMC level?
A. POWER6
B. POWER7
C. POWER4
D. POWER5
Answer: A

A retail customer has implemented the following at each store location:
• A Linux-based POS9 (Point of Sale) application
• A data collection application on an x86 system
• An additional S822L running data analytics
The customer wants to consolidate to a single system in each store. They prefer the POWER platform, but stated concern about the data structure of the POS systems.
What can be presented to the customer to minimize this concern?
A. The ability of Power Systems to support little-Endian and big-Endian Linux instances on the same server.
B. The memory system of Power Servers is Endian neutral.
C. The POS system can be re-compiled to support the big-Endian structure needed by the analytics application.
D. PowerKVM enables Endian neutrality.
Answer: A

Which hardware can be moved from a 770 to an E870 when doing a migration?
A. PCIe 5802/5877 I%2

Check Point CCSA R77 156-215.77 Free Questions | Killtest

Share Check Point CCSA R77 156-215.77 Free Questions

You manage a global network extending from your base in Chicago to Tokyo, Calcutta and Dallas. Management wants a report detailing the current software level of each Enterprise class Security Gateway. You plan to take the opportunity to create a proposal outline, listing the most cost-effective way to upgrade your Gateways. Which two SmartConsole applications will you use to create this report and outline?
A. SmartView Tracker and SmartView Monitor
B. SmartLSM and SmartUpdate
C. SmartDashboard and SmartView Tracker
D. SmartView Monitor and SmartUpdate
Answer: D

Your bank’s distributed R77 installation has Security Gateways up for renewal. Which SmartConsole application will tell you which Security Gateways have licenses that will expire within the next 30 days?
A. SmartView Tracker
B. SmartPortal
C. SmartUpdate
D. SmartDashboard
Answer: C

When launching SmartDashboard, what information is required to log into R77?
A. User Name, Management Server IP, certificate fingerprint file
B. User Name, Password, Management Server IP
C. Password, Management Server IP
D. Password, Management Server IP, LDAP Server IP
Answer: B

Message digests use which of the following?
A. DES and RC4
B. IDEA and RC4
C. SSL and MD4
D. SHA-1 and MD5
Answer: D

Which of the following is a hash algorithm?
A. 3DES
B. IDEA
C. DES
D. MD5
Answer: D

Which of the following uses the same key to decrypt as it does to encrypt?
A. Asymmetric encryption
B. Dynamic encryption
C. Certificate-based encryption
D. Symmetric encryption
Answer: D

You believe Phase 2 negotiations are failing while you are attempting to configure a site-to-site VPN with one of your firm’s business partners. Which SmartConsole application should you use to confirm your suspicions?
A. SmartDashboard
B. SmartUpdate
C. SmartView Status
D. SmartView Tracker
Answer: D

A digital signature:
A. Guarantees the authenticity and integrity of a message.
B. Automatically exchanges shared keys.
C. Decrypts data to its original form.
D. Provides a secure key exchange mechanism over the Internet.
Answer: A

Which component functions as the Internal Certificate Authority for R77?
A. Security Gateway
B. Management Server
C. Policy Server
D. SmartLSM
Answer: B

The customer has a small Check Point installation, which includes one GAiA server working as the SmartConsole, and a second server running Windows 2008 as both Security Management Server and Security Gateway. This is an example of a(n):
A. Distributed Installation
B. Hybrid Installation
C. Unsupported configuration
D. Stand-Alone Installation
Answer: C

The customer has a small Check Point installation which includes one Windows 2008 server as the SmartConsole and a second server running GAiA as both Security Management Server and the Security Gateway. This is an example of a(n):
A. Distributed Installation
B. Unsupported configuration
C. Hybrid Installation
D. Stand-Alone Installation
Answer: D

The customer has a small Check Point installation which includes one Windows 7 workstation as the SmartConsole, one GAiA device working as Security Management Server, and a third server running SecurePlatform as Security Gateway. This is an example of a(n):
A. Hybrid Installation
B. Unsupported configuration
C. Stand-Alone Installation
D. Distributed Installation
Answer: D

13.The customer has a small Check Point installation which includes one Windows 2008 server as SmartConsole and Security Management Server with a second server running GAiA as Security Gateway. This is an example of a(n):
A. Stand-Alone Installation.
B. Distributed Installation.
C. Unsupported configuration.
D. Hybrid Installation.
Answer: B

When doing a Stand-Alone Installation, you would install the Security Management Server with which other Check Point architecture component?
A. None, Security Management Server would be installed by itself.
B. SmartConsole
C. SecureClient
D. Security Gateway
Answer: D

Tom has been tasked to install Check Point R77 in a distributed deployment. Before Tom installs the systems this way, how many machines will he need if he does NOT include a SmartConsole machine in his calculations?
A. Three machines
B. One machine
C. Two machines
D. One machine, but it needs to be installed using SecurePlatform for compatibility purposes
Answer: C

Which command allows Security Policy name and install date verification on a Security Gateway?
A. fw show policy
B. fw stat -l
C. fw ctl pstat -policy
D. fw ver -p
Answer: B

You have two rules, ten users, and two user groups in a Security Policy. You create database version 1 for this configuration. You then delete two existing users and add a new user group. You modify one rule and add two new rules to the Rule Base. You save the Security Policy and create database version 2. After awhile, you decide to roll back to version 1 to use the Rule Base, but you want to keep your user database. How can you do this?
A. Run fwm dbexport -l filename. Restore the database. Then, run fwm dbimport -l filename to import the users.
B. Run fwm_dbexport to export the user database. Select restore the entire database in the Database Revision screen. Then, run fwm_dbimport.
C. Restore the entire database, except the user database, and then create the new user and user group.
D. Restore the entire database, except the user database.
Answer: D

Which feature or command provides the easiest path for Security Administrators to revert to earlier versions of the same Security Policy and objects configuration?
A. Database Revision Control
B. Policy Package management
C. dbexport/dbimport
D. upgrade_export/upgrade_import
Answer: A

Your Security Management Server fails and does not reboot. One of your remote Security Gateways managed by the Security Management Server reboots. What occurs with the remote Gateway after reboot?
A. Since the Security Management Server is not available, the remote Gateway cannot fetch the Security Policy. Therefore, all traffic is allowed through the Gateway.
B. Since the Security Management Server is not available, the remote Gateway cannot fetch the Security Policy. Therefore, no traffic is allowed through the Gateway.
C. The remote Gateway fetches the last installed Security Policy locally and passes traffic normally. The Gateway will log locally, since the Security Management Server is not available.
D. Since the Security Management Server is not available, the remote Gateway uses the local Security Policy, but does not log traffic.
Answer: C

How can you configure an application to automatically launch on the Security Management Server when traffic is dropped or accepted by a rule in the Security Policy?
A. SNMP trap alert script
B. Custom scripts cannot be executed through alert scripts.
C. User-defined alert script
D. Pop-up alert script
Answer: C

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