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A company is experiencing high data growth of its mission critical VMware and database workloads that run on a competitive storage system.How does the IBM FlashSystem V9000 help the company address space consumption?
A. Space-efficient snapshots
B. IBM Tiered Storage Optimizer
C. Real-time Compression
D. Easy Tier
Answer: A

A state government education agency is building an in-house application that designs, delivers, and scores standardized tests. The agency needs a scalable storage solution that initially provides SAS host connectivity during the proof-of-concept phase and can be seamlessly upgraded to more advanced features.Which storage solution should a technical specialist recommend?
A. IBM FlashSystem 900
B. IBM FlashSystem V9000
C. IBM Storewize V5020
D. IBM Storewize V7000
Answer: B

Which two options supply the master encryption key for an IBM Storwize V7000 at power on? (Choose two.)
A. Self-encrypting drives
B. IBM Spectrum Control
C. IBM SKLM
D. USB stick
E. SAS controller
Answer: C,D

A customer is considering IBM VersaStack as the new data center standard. The customer is attracted to the IBM Storewize V7000 storage system because of the flexibility, but the customer has legacy storage that must be retained.What is the primary benefit of IBM VersaStack with IBM Storewize V7000 over competitive converged architectures?
A. The IBM VersaStack is optimized for CISCO NEXUS switches combining multiple storage protocols.
B. The IBM VersaStack provides an integrated foundation for both virtualized and non-virtualized solutions.
C. The IBM Storewize V7000 offers many options for connectivity enabled by the host adapter card selections.
D. The IBM Storewize V7000 enables legacy storage as part of an IBM VersaStack CVD.
Answer: B

A customer has a requirement to encrypt all data.What should be configured with a new IBM Storwize V5020?
A. Self-encrypting drives and IBM Security Key Lifecycle Manager
B. Encryption license and USB keys
C. Base license and USB keys
D. Encryption license and Enterprise Security Key Manager
Answer: B

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You have a KPI named Goal that calculates the sales from the previous year and multiplies the sales by 1.1.
You need to modify Goal to multiply the sales from the previous year by 1.15.
What should you do?
A. From Power Pivot, modify the measure.
B. From the properties of the KPI, modify the KPI base field.
C. From Power Pivot, create a new calculated column, and then modify the KPI.
D. From the properties of the KPI, modify the absolute value.
Answer: A

Your network contains a folder that has data files m various formats.
You need to identify how many files of each extension type are in the folder by using Query Editor.
What should you do?
A. Create a query that uses a file source, and then use the Count Values command on the Transform tab.
B. Create a query that uses a folder source, and then use the Group By command on the Home tab.
C. Create a query that uses a file source, and then use the Group By command on the Home tab.
D. Create a query that uses a folder source, and then use the Count Values command on the Transform tab.
Answer: B

You have 20 workbook queries that load 20 CSV files to a local computer.
You plan to send the workbook and the 20 CSV files to several users. The users will store the files in various location.
You need to ensure that the users can change the path to the CSV files in the queries as quickly as possible.
What should you do from Query Editor?
A. Merge all the queries. Edit the source of the first query.
B. Create a parameter. Modify the source of each query to use the parameter.
C. For each query, create a new query that uses a reference. Modify the source of each new query.
D. Append all the queries. Edit the source of the first query.
Answer: B

You have an Excel workbook that has the following two workbook queries:
A query named consultants that retrieves a table named Consultants_Contact from a Microsoft SQL Server database
A query named employees that retrieves a table named Employee_Contact from a Microsoft Azure SQL database
Both tables have the same columns.
You need to combine all the data from Consultants and Employees into one table.
Which command should you use?
A. Transpose
B. Append Queries
C. Merge Queries
D. Combine Binaries
Answer: B

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What is the first test that should be performed as part of load testing an application to evaluate performance?
A. Baseline test
B. Benchmark test
C. Scalability test
D. Compatibility test
Answer: A

Which is a feature provided for both Managed service instances and User-provided service instances in IBM Cloud Foundry?
A. Automatic encryption of service instance metadata.
B. Instance lifecycle management via the Cloud Controller.
C. Automatic creation of service instances during application deployment.
D. Expose service instance metadata to applications via the VCAP_SERVICES environment variable.
Answer: D

Which OpenStack API generates authorization tokens that will enable an application or service to access objects in an IBM Bluemix Object Storage container?
A. Stack API
B. Swift API
C. Karbor API
D. Keystone API
Answer: B

What can a user do after deploying a boilerplate application?
A. Use IBM Cloud provided test data in the application.
B. Copy the application to another IBM Cloud region using the dashboard.
C. Connect additional managed services to the application.
D. Choose the runtime they wish to use for that application.
Answer: B

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What are two benefits of using IBM PureApplication in an IBM Cloud environment? (Select two.)
A. Divides and isolates physical resources through cloud groups
B. Achieves automated, vertical scaling for faster response times during usage spikes
C. Provides consumers with pre-configured Traditional WebSphere and Liberty Profile servers.
D. Allows teams to instantly step through and review the current process design with a built-in payback feature
E. Provides built-in monitoring and analytics that help optimize business processes through simulations and comparisons.
Answer: A,B

A developer needs periodic access to cloud compute resource to test production system updates and enhancements. What option allows the IT organizations to optimize cloud compute resource utilization?
A. Establish a fixed contract with a cloud service provider
B. Submit IT request to leverage existing internal resources
C. Establish a pay-per use contract with a cloud service provider
D. Submit a chargeback request to utilize cloud compute resources
Answer: C

What is defined as the degree to which a system is able to adapt to workload changes by provisioning and de-provisioning resources in an autonomic manner, such that at each point in time the available resources match the current demand as closely as possible?
A. Free source
B. Elastic resource
C. Automated resource
D. Consumable resource
Answer: B

What will protect data in transit from unauthorized interception?
A. API
B. SSL
C. DES
D. AES
Answer: B

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You have optimized four models that do not meet your performance goals. You believe that by mergingthese models together you would achieve better performance.
Which node would allow you to accomplish this task?
A. Aggregate node
B. Reclassify node
C. Regression node
D. Ensemble node
Answer: D

What is the primary purpose of the Partition node in a modeling effort?
A. Divide the data into training and testing data.
B. Increase the proportion of under-represented subgroups within the data.
C. Decrease the proportion of an over-represented subgroup within the data.
D. Allow for equal sampling across subgroups within the data.
Answer: A

A client has a business goal of increasing units sold by 10 percent.
Which two data mining objectives would be consistent with their business goal? (Choose two.)
A. Create a profile of customers most likely to default on their account.
B. Create a profile of current high value customers’ purchasing patterns.
C. Reduce marketing costs.
D. Determine which products should be grouped together on the shopping Web site.
Answer: B,D

You have a large amount of data from which you want to build a model. Although many of the
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Which node will exclude the undesired records?
A. Filler node
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C. Select node
D. Aggregate node
Answer: B

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Which commands below are useful to collect data about remote filesystem connections? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. pidstat
B. nfsiostat
C. sadf
D. cifsiostat
Answer: B, D

In the following output, the load averages represent the system load averages for what time frames?
12:10:05 up 18 days, 19:00, 2 users, load average: 0.47, 24.71, 35.31
A. 1, 5 and 15 minutes
B. 1, 15 and 30 minutes
C. 1, 15, and 30 seconds
D. 15, 30 and 60 minutes
E. 15, 30 and 60 seconds
Answer: A

When planning a web server which of the following choices will impact system sizing? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. How many concurrent users are expected.
B. Which hardware vendor has better Linux support.
C. What type of content will be served.
D. What scripting languages will the web server support.
E. Will the OS install be CD, DVD or network based.
Answer: A, C, D

What mechanism does collectd use to gather monitoring information on systems?
A. It uses a library of plugins.
B. A master server connects to a collectd service on each machine to retrieve the information.
C. It collects its own information on each server and sends that to a master server.
D. It makes SNMP queries to the clients being monitored.
Answer: A

Which of the following tools are used to measure memory usage? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. mpstat
B. pstree
C. sar
D. top
E. vmstat
Answer: C, D, E

Which of the following is a side effect of extensive usage of swap space?
A. The root filesystem may become full because swap space is always located on the system root partition.
B. The overall system performance may degrade because of heavy hard disk use and memory reorganization.
C. Since processes always exist completely in either RAM or swap, regular RAM may become unused if the kernel does not move processes back from the swap space to memory.
D. The memory may become fragmented and slow down the access to memory pages. However, this can be kept to a minimum by the regular use of memfrag -d.
E. Applications need to restart because their virtual memory addresses change to reflect memory relocation to the swap address area.
Answer: B

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You need to search for research papers that contain media files.
What should you do? {Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Add an Association operation from the ResearchPapers.ID field to the Windows Media Service.
B. Use Remote BLOB storage.
C. Add an Association operation from the ResearchPapers.ID field to the TreyResearch external content type.
D. Create a SQL Server-based external content type.
Answer: B, D

You need to configure the Content Enrichment web service to index content from the AbstractIndexer service.
What should you do?
A. Set the value of the OutputProperties array to Trigger=True.
B. Set the value of the SendRawData property to false.
C. Configure conditions for the Trigger property.
D. Set the value of the InputProperties property to Trigger=True.
Answer: A

You create a custom Visual Web Part. You deploy the solution package to the farm
by using Windows PowerShell. When you try to add the custom Visual Web Part to a
SharePoint site, an error message displays that includes a correlation ID.
You need to determine the cause of the error.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Run the Get-SPLogEvent Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
B. Run the Get-SPDiagnosticConfig Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
C. Run the Get-SPHealthAnalysisRule Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
D. View the Service Calls tab on the Developer Dashboard.
E. View the Unified Logging Service (ULS) tab on the Developer Dashboard.
Answer: A, E

You need to implement caching in your code.
Which caching option should you use?
A. Object Cache
B. Distributed Cache
C. Windows Server AppFabric Cache
D. ASP.NET cache
Answer: C

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Which of the following parameters is used in the database on a slave server to direct clients that want to make changes to the OpenLDAP database to the master server?
A. updatedn
B. updateserver
C. updateref
D. updateuri
Answer: C

It is found that changes made to an OpenLDAP directory are no longer being replicated to the slave server at 192.168.0.3. Tests prove that the slave server is listening on the correct port and changes are being recorded properly to the replication log file. In which file would you find the replication errors?
A. replication.err
B. replication.rej
C. 192.168.0.3: 389.rej
D. 192.168.0.3: 389.err
Answer: C

In an OpenLDAP masters’s slapd.conf configuration file, a replica configuration option is needed to enable a slave OpenLDAP server to replicate. What value is required in the following setting: bindmethod=____________ if using passwords for master/slave authentication? (Only specify the missing value)
Answer: simple

In the example below, what is the missing argument that is required to use secret as the password to authenticate the replication push with a slave directory server?
replica uri=ldaps: //slave.example.com: 636
binddn=”cn=Replicator,dc=example,dc=com”
bindmethod=simple ______________=secret
A. secure
B. master
C. credentials
D. password
Answer: C

Below is an ACL entry from a slapd.conf file. Fill in the access control level setting to prevent users from retrieving passwords.
access to attrs=lmPassword,ntPassword by dn=”cn=smbadmin,dc=samplenet” write by * _______
Answer: none

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An administrator needs to setup security for a newly installed environment.
Which of the following is a valid step?
A. Remove the default authentication provider.
B. Enable anonymous access for selected users, groups, or roles.
C. Delete the Everyone group to limit access to the environment for selected users, groups, and roles.
D. Add trusted users, groups, or roles to the System Administrators role, and then remove the Everyone group from the role.
Answer: D

In a multi-server environment, an administrator wants to ensure that items in the Content Manager Cache service are re-validated every thirty seconds.
Which option would accomplish this?
A. Set the memory limit of the Content Manager Cache service to 30000.
B. Set the DISP.contentManagerCacheService.accountlnactivityTimer property to 30000.
C. Set the DISP.contentManagerCacheService.cacheValidatorTimetoLive property to 30000.
D. Set the DISP.contentManagerCacheService.cacheValidatorTimetoLinger property to 30000.
Answer: C

An administrator is configuring settings for the Cognos Analytics Mobile app.
Which settings can be managed?
A. To store the user credentials in the IBM Cognos Mobile app.
B. The maximum number of minutes to store cached credentials.
C. Allow the user to create an image (screenshot) of the Active Report.
D. The maximum number of Active Reports to store locally on the mobile device.
Answer: B

An administrator is evaluating system status using the Scorecard pane on the Status > System page in the IBM Cognos Administration console.
Which statement is true?
A. If a service is disabled in IBM Cognos Configuration, it is listed in the Scorecard pane.
B. The status that is displayed for each entry reflects the lowest status for all child entries.
C. A status of Available is displayed when at least 80% of the child entries have a status of Available.
D. A status of Unavailable is displayed when at least 80% of the child entries have a status of Unavailable.
Answer: B

An administrator is implementing security by managing and working with the Cognos namespace.
Which statement is true?
A. To gain access to IBM Cognos Analytics, users can log on to the Cognos namespace.
B. Create domain users in the Cognos namespace to avoid cluttering the existing authentication provider.
C. User-defined groups and roles must be created in a 3rd-party authentication provider and cannot be created in the Cognos namespace.
D. Although the use of the predefined and built-in groups and roles within the Cognos namespace is optional, the Cognos namespace cannot be deleted.
Answer: D

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Because SmartDedupe and SmartCompression can reduce the total required storage spacer,
they can also reduce the initial investment.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

Which protocol provides the fastest transfer speed?
A. 10 GE iSCSI
B. FC0E
C. FC
D. Infiniband
Answer: D

From a Windows client perspective, a NAS looks more like a network drive whereas a
SAN looks more like a local drive.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

Which of the following statements is true.
A) An eDevLUN is always on a third party device?
B) A mirror copy should come from a different domain than the local LUN?
A. Statement A is true and Statement B is false.
B. Statement A is false and Statement B is true.
C. Both statements are true.
D. Both statements are false.
Answer: B

SmartDedupe of the OceanStor 5300 V3 is supported only by the thin file system.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

Which of the following statements about SmartErase is/are true.
A) SmartErase allows a disk whose data has been erased to be reused after a
dab destruction task is completed?
B) SmartErase deletes data, that belongs to a specific LUN, permanently from
disks to prevent it from being recovered by unauthorized users using residual data?
A. Statement A is true and Statement B is false.
B. Statement A is false and Statement B is true.
C. Both statements are true.
D. Both statements are false.
Answer: B

Assume you are the administrator of a storage system and you need to plan storage capacity.
The storage device has six disks, and the dab traffic is random and small.
Which of the following is the best capacity plan?
A. RAID 3 (4D+1P) and Low spare space policy.
B. RAID 5 (4D+1P) and Low spare space policy,
C. RAID 3 (3D+1P) and High spare space policy.
D. RAID 5 (3D+1P) and High spare space policy.
Answer: B

A colleague suggests using Hyper Clone to create a remote copy of a LUN to provide
a remote office with the correct data.
This is?
A. Not possible because clones are created within the boundaries of a storage device.
B. Possible but will require a very high bandwidth link.
C. Possible but an expensive solution.
D. Not possible because clones do not provide copies of LUN’s,
Answer: A

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